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JAMB Physics Past Questions and Answers | Free CBT Practice Test (Updated for 2027 UTME)

3. Which of the following statements best describes the elasticity of a material?

A. It is the ability of a material to break easily when stretched. B. It is the ability of a material to regain its original shape and size after the deforming force is removed. C. It is the ability of a material to undergo permanent deformation. D. It is the ability of a material to increase in mass when a force is applied.

1. The barometric height in a mercury barometer is 760 mm. If the same pressure is to be measured using a water column, what is the equivalent height? (Density of mercury = 13,600 kg/m³)

A. 7.6m B. 10.3m C. 13.6m D. 1.0m

2. The figure above shows two boxes placed on the top of a table. If the boxes are equal in weight, it can be deducted that.

A. The pressure exerted by A is greater than that of B. B. The pressure exerted by B is greater than that of A. C. The pressure exerted by A is equal to that of B D. The boxes with greater exerts the greater pressure.

3. Dams are usually thicker at the bottom because

A. the water pressure exerted are strongest close to the ground B. the water pressure is weakest close to the ground C. water has a greater pressure close to the ground D. water has a lesser pressure close to the ground

4. A given barometric altimeter read zero Pascal

A. In the atmosphere B. In the sea C. On land D. In outer space

5. The siphon works on the concepts of

A. Equal pressure at all point at the same level within the liquid B. Pressure being equally transmitted throughout every portion a liquid in a vessels C. Excess pressure between difference pressure head D. Atmospheric pressure being greater than internal pressure of the liquid in the vessels

6. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to

A. 10 Pa B. 1000Pa C. 10,000Pa D. 100,000pa

7. The height of a column with normal atmospheric pressure is

A. 760cm B. 76cm C. 7.6cm D. 0.76cm

1. The density of water is 1 g/cm³, while the density of ice is 0.9 g/cm³. Calculate the change in volume when 90 g of ice is completely melted.

A. 10cm³ B. 0cm³ C. 900cm³ D. 9cm³

2. Which of the following statements about flotation is not correct?

A. An object floats because the upthrust experienced by the object equals the weight of the object B. A floating object displaces its own weight of liquid C. An object floats when its density is less than that of the liquid D. An object floats because the weight of the fluid is more than that of the object

3. he density and weight of a body are respectively 5000kgm⁻³ and 1.0N. What is the apparent weight of the body when fully immersed in water?

A. 1.0N B. 0.2N C. 0.8N D. 0.08N

4. Anomalous behavior of water occurs between:

A. 0°C - 4°C B. -4°C - 0°C C. 0°C - 25°C D. 1°C - 100°C

5. A uniform solid cube of sides 10 cm has a mass of 700g. What percentage of its volume will be submerged in water? [Relative density of water is 1 g/cm³]

A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%

6. A spherical metal ball of radius 1 cm falls with a steady velocity of 2 m/s down a viscous liquid in a container. If the viscous force of the liquid is 0.02N at room temperature, calculate the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid (π = 3.142)

A. 0.021 Pa.s B. 0.053 Pa.s C. 0.010 Pa.s D. 0.002 Pa.s

7. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A. Lying on a bed of nails is more comfortable than sitting on the same bed B. An ideal fluid has internal friction force between its adjacent layers C. When a fluid is at rest in a container, all portions of the fluid must be in static equilibrium D. A change in pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted to every point of the fluid and to the wall of the container.

8. A solid weighs 10.5N in air and 5.5N when immersed in a liquid of density 900 kgm⁻³. Calculate the volume of the solid. [g = 10 m/s²]

A. 1.17×10⁻⁴m³ B. 5.56×10⁻⁴m³ C. 3.24×10⁻⁴m³ D. 2.24×10⁻⁴m³

9. A pin floats on water due to the phenomenon of

A. Viscosity in fluid B. Surface tension C. Capillary tension D. Gravitation

10. Which of these methods cannot be used to reduce the surface tension of a liquid?

A. Addition of detergent or soap B. Addition of oil C. addition of alcohol D. reducing temperature of the liquid.

11. Easiest way to reduce the viscosity of any liquid is by

A. Increase its surface area B. Applying high temperature applying pressure C. Applying pressure Applying electric field

12. Which of these is correct about mercury in a capillary bore?

A. Meniscus is convex and angle of contact is obtuse B. Meniscus is concave and angle of contact is obtuse C. Mercury does not wet glass and angle of contact is acute D. Adhesion between mercury and glass molecules is greater than cohesion between mercury molecules

13. The force that pushes a body in a liquid upwards is called

A. Upthrust B. Weight C. Thrust D. Viscosity

1. The fundamental difference between a thermocouple and a mercury-in-glass thermometer is that:

A. The thermocouple measures only very low temperatures B. The mercury thermometer is not calibrated C. The thermocouple uses expansion of metal D. The thermocouple uses thermoelectric effect to measure temperature

2. Mercury is used as a thermometric substance because: I. Its specific heat is low. II. It does not wet glass. III. It is opaque.

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

3. Which of these thermometers uses the volume of a fixed mass of liquid as its thermometric property?

A. Mercury-in-glass thermometer B. Thermocouple thermometer C. Constant-volume gas thermometer D. Resistance thermometer

4. Why is water not used as a thermometric fluid?

A. Water wets glass B. Anomalous expansion between 0^o^C and 4^o^C C. Water has a high coefficient of thermalcapacity D. Water has a density of 1gcm^-3^

1. A steel bridge is 100 m long at 15°C. What structural feature is most appropriate to accommodate thermal expansion during hot seasons?

A. Use of thinner beams B. Painting the surface white C. Use of expansion joints D. Using insulating materials

2. Which of the following thermometers is most suitable for measuring rapid changes in temperature?

A. Mercury-in-glass thermometer B. Constant volume gas thermometer C. Resistance thermometer D. Thermocouple

3. Railway lines, 25 m long, are being laid when the temperature is 15°C. Gaps of 1.8 cm are being left between them. At which temperature will they touch each other? [Coefficient of linear expansivity = 1.2 × 10⁻⁵/°C]

A. 55°C B. 50°C C. 75°C D. 110°C

4. A thick glass tumbler cracks when hot water is poured into it because

A. Anomalous expansion of water B. neven expansion of the glass tumbler C. Thermal expansion of water D. Even expansion of the glass tumbler

5. The density of a liquid is 7.00 × 10³ kgm^-3 at 10⁰ C. Find its density at 100⁰ C if the cubic expansivity of the liquid is 6.5×10^-5 K^-1

A. 7.82×10³ kgm^-3 B. 6.69×10³ kgm^-3 C. 7.08×10³ kgm^-3 D. 7.00×10³ kgm^-3

1. The graphical representation of pressure law is always a straight line passing through the origin only if the temperature scale is:

A. Rankine B. Thermodynamic (Kelvin) C. Celsius D. Fahrenheit

2. A mass of gas at 17°C and 700mmHg has a volume of 1.2m³. Determine its volume at 27°C and pressure at 750mmHg.

A. 2.2m³ B. 1.2m³ C. 4.8m³ D. 3.0m³

3. Dry hydrogen is trapped by a pellet of mercury in a uniform capillary tube closed at one end. If the length of the column of hydrogen at 27°C is 1.0m, at what temperature will the length be 1.20m?

A. 22.5°C B. 32.4°C C. 77°C D. 87°C

4. A given mass of gas at a temperature of 30°C is trapped in a tube of volume V. Calculate the temperature of the gas when volume is reduced to two-thirds of its original value by applying a pressure twice the original.

A. -71°C B. 40°C C. 131°C D. 404°C

5. Pascal's law of pressure transmissibility is applicable to which of these devices?

A. Hydraulic lift B. Siphon C. Hydrometer D. Hygrometer

6. What is the final volume of a gas with an initial volume of 546 cm³ at 0°C, if the temperature drops to -100°C?

A. 364 cm³ B. 436 cm³ C. 862 cm³ D. 346 cm³

7. The volume of a gas at 25°C is said to be doubled at:

A. 556K B. 596K C. 273K D. 334K

8. A closed jar contains air at 1atmospohere and 27oC. When the jar is heated to 127oC, what will be the pressure increase?

A. 1 1/3 atm B. 3 1/3 atm C. 1/3 atm D. 1/2 atm

9. A mass of gas at 17⁰C and 700mmHg Has a volume of 1.2m³. Determine it volume at 27^oC and pressure at 750mmHg.

A. 2.2m³ B. 1.2m³ C. 4.8m³ D. 3.0m³

10. A graph of P (pressure) (1)/(v)(volume v) is

A. Parabola B. Curved C. Straight line D. Hyperbola

1. How long does it take a 750 W water heater to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water from 20°C to 50°C? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹)

A. 84s B. 112s C. 168s D. 28s

2. 200 g of ice at 0°C is added to 500 g of water at 60°C in an insulated container. Assuming no heat loss, what is the final temperature? (Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg°C; Latent heat of fusion of ice = 336,000 J/kg)

A. 0°C B. 10°C C. 20°C D. 30°C

3. A 1000 W heater is used to convert ice at -10°C to steam at 100°C. How long will it take to convert 0.5 kg of ice? (Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J/kg°C; Latent heat of fusion = 336,000 J/kg; Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg°C; Latent heat of vaporization = 2.26×10⁶ J/kg)

A. 1790 s B. 1980 s C. 2220 s D. 2400 s

4. If the same quantity of heat is supplied to substances P and Q, and P has a temperature rise twice that of Q, and Q has a mass that is half of the mass of P, find the ratio of the specific heat capacity of P to that of Q.

A. 1:4 B. 4:1 C. 1:2 D. 2:1

5. How long does it take a 7.50W rated filament to convert 0.01 kg of water at 100°C to steam? [Specific latent heat of vaporisation of steam = 2.20 × 10⁶ J/kg]

A. 60.20 min B. 29.33 min C. 48.89 min D. 52.25 min

6. If the heat capacity of 100g of a substance is 300 Jk⁻¹, what would be the heat capacity of 10g of the same substance?

A. 30 Jk⁻¹ B. 300 Jk⁻¹ C. 30,000 Jk⁻¹ D. 3 Jk⁻¹

7. The temperature of land rises more quickly than that of the sea because the specific heat of soil is

A. More than that of water B. Less than that of water C. Equal to that of water D. Negligible

8. A 50W heating coil is used for 2 minutes to heat a spherical metal ball of mass 0.5kg and specified heat capacity of 1,000jkg-1k-1. The temperature rise is?

A. 25^oC B. 24^oC C. 12^oC D. 6^oC

9. When equal masses of water and oil are supplied with the same amount of heat, found to the twice that in the water. This is because the

A. Oil is a better conductor of heat than water B. Specific heat capacity of water is twice that of oil C. Specific heat capacity of the oil is twice that of water D. Thermal capacity of the oil is twice that of oil

10. Calculate the quantity of heat required to change 2kg of water at 0oC to water at 100^oC. [Specific heat capacity of water =4200Jkg^-1K^-1]

A. 8.4×10⁴J B. 8.4×10⁵J C. 8.4×10²J D. 8.2×10³J

11. What is the S.I unit of heat capacity?

A. J/K B. J/Kg/K C. J/kg D. K/kg

1. Which factor does not affect the vapour pressure of a liquid?

A. Nature of the liquid B. Surface area exposed C. Temperature D. Intermolecular forces

2. Which of the following explains why the boiling point of a liquid increases with pressure?

A. The molecules need less kinetic energy to escape B. The density of the liquid increases C. The molecules require more energy to overcome atmospheric pressure D. The specific latent heat increases with pressure

3. A hygrometer is an instrument used to measure:

A. Dew point B. Temperature C. Relative density D. Relative humidity

4. The amount of energy per unit mass that must be transferred as heat when a substance completely undergoes a phase change is described as:

A. Heat of vaporization B. Heat of fusion C. Heat of sublimation D. Heat of transformation

5. The specific latent heat of steam is 2,300J/g and the specific heat capacity of water is 4.2J/gk. When 2g of steam at 100o C condenses to water at 40oC, the heat given up is

A. 5,104J B. 4,936J C. 4,636J D. 4,684J

5. The temperature at which the water present in the air is just enough to saturate the air is

A. Dew point B. Fog C. Humidity D. Mist

1. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the pressure exerted by a gas on the wall equals:

A. Momentum imparted to the wall per second per unit area B. Change in momentum per unit volume C. Rate of change of momentum imparted to the wall per second per unit area D. Change in momentum imparted per unit area

2. When a gas is compressed at constant temperature, the gas molecules

A. gain kinetic energy B. increases slightly in size C. move at the same speed so that the pressure is unchanged D. make more impacts per second on the walls of the container

3. Which of the following factors is common to all metals?

A. Hardness B. Conductivity C. Ductility D. Malleability

4. A piece of chalk is broken into its smallest piece possible, what is the smallest pieces

A. Atom B. Molecule C. Ion D. Neutron

5. Which of these is stated by kinetic molecular models in solid?

A. The molecules are closely related and little movement in them B. The molecules are free to move around C. The molecule are rigid and fixed with usually lattice arrangement D. The molecules are loosely related with high movement

1. The rate of heat transfer by radiation is most affected by:

A. Mass of the object B. Colour and surface texture C. Thermal conductivity D. Volume of the material

2. The energy transfer process that is most clearly associated with a temperature difference is:

A. Convection B. Radiation C. Conduction D. Convection and radiation

3. The flow of blood in the human body is based on the heat transfer process known as:

A. Heat convection B. Heat conduction C. Heat radiation D. Heat evaporation

4. The mode of heat transfer that is electromagnetic in nature is

A. Conduction B. Evaporation C. Convention D. Radiation

5. Wooden ladles are commonly used domestically to scoop hot soup because of their

A. Good insulation of electricity B. Good insulation of heat and electricity C. Bad conduction of heat and electricity D. Good insulation of heat

6. Petrol produces a cooling effect when it is poured on the hand because it has

A. low conductivity B. high conductivity C. high latent heat of vapourization. D. has low latent heat of evaporation

7. Radiant heat can only be measured with a

A. Clinical thermometer B. Gas thermometer C. Platinum resistance thermometer D. Thermopile

8. Heat transfer by convection in a liquid is due to the

A. Translator motion of the molecules of the liquid B. Increase in vibration of the liquid about their mean position C. Expansion of the liquid as it is heated D. Ability of the liquid to evaporate at old temperature

1. Which of the following is not true about a wave in a plucked string?

A. It has a crest B. It is transverse C. It is longitudinal D. It is mechanical

2. A progressive wave is given as y = 0.1sin(400πt − 20πx). What is the phase difference between two points that are 0.05 m apart?

A. π/2 radians B. π radians C. 2π radians D. 3π radians

3. Which electromagnetic wave is most suitable for satellite communication due to its ability to penetrate the Earth's atmosphere with minimal absorption?

A. Gamma rays B. Microwaves C. Ultraviolet rays D. Infrared rays

4. The speed of sound in air at 0°C is 330 m/s. What is its speed at 25°C?

A. 1043 m/s B. 1044 m/s C. 345 m/s D. 042 m/s

5. A student notices that a tuning fork vibrating at 512 Hz produces resonance in a tube closed at one end. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s, what is the shortest possible length of the tube for resonance to occur?

A. 0.08m B. 0.17 m C. 0.33 m D. 0.66 m

6. Which of the following pairs of wave properties are responsible for the pitch and loudness of a sound respectively?

A. Frequency and amplitude B. Wavelength and velocity C. Amplitude and wavelength D. Frequency and velocity

7. Two points A and B are 1.0m apart. What is the least frequency that will resonate with a wire stretched between these two points, given that the speed of the wave in the wire is 200m/s

A. 50Hz B. 100Hz C. 150Hz D. 75Hz

8. In a wavefront diagram, energy is transferred from A to B in 0.05s with 3.5 cycles shown. What is the frequency of the wave?

A. 20Hz B. 70Hz C. 0.0143Hz D. 90Hz

9. One hundred complete waves pass a given point in 5s. Given that the distance between two consecutive crests on the wave is 11m, what is the speed of the wave?

A. 300m/s B. 220m/s C. 200m/s D. 440m/s

10. The property of waves which can be used to differentiate light waves from sound waves is:

A. Reflection B. Refraction C. Interference D. Polarization

11. The pitch of a note depends on:

A. Overtone B. Amplitude C. Frequency D. Period

12. A string of mass 2500g and length 20m is under a tension of 2 × 10² N. If it is struck at one end, how long will the disturbance take to reach the other end?

A. 1.0s B. 0.5s C. 2.0s D. 3.2s

13. A man's voice is usually different from a woman's voice mainly due to differences in their:

A. Pitch B. Quality C. Loudness D. wavelength

14. One of these is not a mechanical wave

A. Sound wave B. Water wave C. Light wave D. Seismic wave

15. The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe is the same as that of the second overtone of a closed organ pipe of length 0.2m. What is the length of the open organ pipe?

A. 0.132m B. 0.160m C. 0.125m D. 0.080m

16. What is the maximum possible wavelength in an open organ pipe of length a cm?

A. a cm B. 2a cm C. 3a cm D. 4a cm

17. A vibrating string has a tension of 40N and produces a note of 200HZ when plucked in the middle the length of the string is unaltered and the tension is increased by 120N, then the new frequency becomes?

A. 1,600Hz B. 25Hz C. 200Hz D. 400Hz

18. The note from a plucked guitar string will have a low pitch if the string is

A. thin and short B. thin and long C. thick and slack D. thick and short

19. Standing wave are a result of

A. Interference of wave B. Refraction of wave C. Reflection of wave D. Diffraction of a wave

20. From the equation v=fý, the property of the wave that is independent of the other is its

A. Wavelength B. Frequency C. Amplitude D. Velocity

21. An object is place 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius 40cm. the image formed is

A. Virtual and 40cm from the mirror B. Real and 60cm in front of the mirror C. Virtual and 60cm behind the mirror D. Real and at infinity

22. The fundamental frequency of the diagram above is DIAGRAM available in class session

A. f = (v)/(2l) B. f = (V)/(3l) C. f= (V)/(4l) D. f= (2V)/(3l)

23. In the diagram, x represents the? DIAGRAM available in class session

A. Frequency B. Resonance frequency C. Amplitude D. Altitude

1. A ray of light travels from air into water at an angle. Which statement about its speed and direction is correct?

A. It speeds up and bends toward the normal B. It slows down and bends toward the normal C. It slows down and bends away from the normal D. It speeds up and bends away from the normal

2. Which of the following best explains why a red object appears black under green light? A. B. C. D.

A. Red objects reflect green light B. Red objects absorb green light C. Green light is brighter than red light D. Red and green light cancel each other out

3. An image which can be formed on a screen is said to be:

A. Virtual B. Blurred C. Real D. Erect

4. An object is placed 10m in front of a plane mirror. If it is moved 8m further away from the mirror, what will be the new image distance from the object?

A. 8m B. 10m C. 18m D. 36m

5. If a virtual image appears larger than the object and is formed on the same side as the object, the possible mirror/lens is:

A. Concave lens B. Convex lens C. Concave mirror D. Convex mirror

6. An object is placed at 20cm in front of a concave mirror producing a three-fold magnified real image. Obtain the focal length of the mirror.

A. 15cm B. 6.6cm C. 7.5cm D. 10cm

7. If two plane mirrors are positioned side by side and the number of images formed is 8, at what angle are they positioned?

A. 30° B. 40° C. 60° D. 90°

8. Which of the following observations cannot be explained using the rectilinear propagation of light?

A. Diffraction patterns of light B. Formation of annular eclipse C. Production of real images D. Production of images by a pinhole camera.

9. An ant is found under a regular glass slab of thickness 10.0cm and refractive index 1.7. Calculate the apparent displacement of the ant if viewed vertically from above the slab

A. 4.1cm B. 3.8cm C. 5.9cm D. 6.9cm

10. What part of camera performed the same function as the retina of human eye?

A. Aperture B. Iris C. Film D. Diaphragm

10. Black is seen as black because

A. White light is reflected from it B. It is black C. It absorbs all the spectrum of the white light D. White light refracts through it

11. A ray of light is incident normally on a plane mirror. If the incident ray is kept fixed while the mirror is rotated through an angle of 30⁰ determine the initial and final angles of reflection respectively.

A. 0⁰ and 30⁰ B. 90⁰ and 60⁰ C. 90⁰ and 30⁰ D. 0⁰ and 60⁰

1. The density of water is 1gcm⁻³. Calculate the change in volume when 90g of ice is completely melted.

A. 0cm³ B. 9cm³ C. 10cm³ D. 90cm³

2. As pressure is increased

A. The melting point of ice decreases B. The melting point of ice increases C. The boiling point of water decreases D. No change is observed in the melting point of ice or the boiling point of water

3. Petrol produces a cooling effect when it is poured on the hand because it has

A. low conductivity B. high conductivity C. high latent D. heat of vapourization

4. During the melting of ice at 0°C, the temperature of the ice-water mixture remains constant because the heat supplied is used to

A. increase the kinetic energy of the molecules. B. increase the potential energy of the molecules by overcoming intermolecular forces. C. raise the temperature of the water. D. increase the mass of the ice.

1. A virtual image is formed by a convex lens when the object is placed:

A. Between the lens and the focal point (F) B. At the focal point (F) C. Beyond the focal point (F) D. At infinity

2. An erect image four times as big as the object is formed by a lens of focal length 15.0cm. What is the image distance from the lens?

A. 45cm B. 30cm C. 11.3cm D. 18.8cm

3. Which of the following is NOT a consequence or application of total internal reflection?

A. Brilliance of diamond B. Working of optical fibre C. Mirage on a hot summer day D. Difference between real and apparent depth

4. A bifocal lens can be used to correct which type of defect?

A. Shortsightedness B. Long sightedness C. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism

5. A hypermetropic person with near point 0.75m wears spectacles of power 2.5D. The new near point is now:

A. 0.26m B. 0.75m C. 0.86m D. 0.17m

6. The defect of the eye lens which occurs when the ciliary muscles are weak is called

A. Long sightedness B. Short sightedness C. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism

7. A converging lens has a focal length of 20cm the lens forms a real inverted image of the same size as the object when the object distance from the lens is

A. 40cm B. 30cm C. 20cm D. 10cm

8. The accommodation of the eye is

A. produced by movement of the retina B. due to change in the size of the pupil C. produced by the action of ciliary muscles D. as a result of unbalanced diet.

9. Which of the following gives white colour when combined

A. red + magenta + green B. blue + red + cyan C. red + green + blue D. red + cyan + blue

10. Which of the following observations cannot be explained using the rectilinear propagation of light?

A.. Diffraction patterns of light B. Formation of annular eclipse C. Production of real images D. Production of images by a pinhole camera.

11. What will be the appearance of green color of the Nigerian flag if viewed under a red light

A. Black B. Magenta C. Yellow D. Cyan

12. Which of the following remains unchanged when light travels from one mediums to another?

A. Frequency B. Velocity C. Wavelength D. None

13. When a man stand in water, his legs appear shorter, which principles cause this?

A. Reflections B. Polarizations C. Refractions D. Diffractions

14. The use of lenses is NOT applicable in the

A. Projector B. Human eye C. Periscopes D. Telescope

15. Which of the following are complementary colours?

A. Cyan and yellow B. Green and yellow C. Blue and yellow D. Green and blue

1. If an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, it is true that:

A. The fur will acquire positive charges while the rod will acquire negative charges B. The fur will acquire negative charges while the rod will acquire positive charges C. Both the fur and the rod will acquire positive charges D. Both the fur and the rod will acquire negative charges

2. In a conductor of irregular shape, in which part will electric charge tend to concentrate most? (Diagram shows irregular conductor with parts A, B, C, D where C is the sharpest point)

A. D B. C C. B D. A

3. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

A. Electric Potential B. Electric field C. Angular momentum D. Linear momentum

4. A glass rod is charged when rubbed with silk cloth because

A. It transfers negative charges to silk B. It transfers positive charges C. It accepts negative charges D. It decreases the number of free electrons

5. A charge of 1.6×10⁻¹⁹C is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity 1200V/m. Calculate its acceleration if its mass is 9.1×10⁻³¹kg.

A. 2.11×10¹²m/s² B. 2.11×10¹⁴m/s² C. 6.83×10¹²m/s² D. 6.83×10¹⁴m/s²

6. Electrostatics Q4. A charge of 30 μC experiences a force of 60 N at a certain point. The electric field intensity due to the charge is

A. 5×10⁴ NC-1 B. 2×10⁴ NC-1 C. 5×10⁶ NC-1 D. 2×10⁶ NC-1

7. What is the electric potential energy of two positive charges each of magnitude q and a distance or r apart?

A. q²/4piE_or² B. q²/4piE_or C. q/4piE_or² D. q²/4piE_or

1. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 10 μF. If the distance between the plates is halved, what will happen to the capacitance?

A. It will double B. Remain the same C. It will be halved D. It will quadruple

2. A cell of EMF 6 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected in series with a 3 Ω resistor. If another identical cell is connected in parallel with the first, what is the total current flowing in the circuit?

A. 1.0A B. 1.2A C. 1.5A D. 2.0A

3. Which of the following is stored by a dry Leclanche cell?

A. Chemical energy B. Nuclear energy C. Electrical energy D. Heat energy

4. The function of the manganese (IV) oxide in a Leclanche cell is to:

A. Decrease the e.m.f. of the cell B. Prevent local action C. Prevent polarization D. Increase the density of the electrolyte

5. In the diagram, the current I is: (two resistors 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel, voltage = 2V)

A. 1.0A B. 2.0A C. 2.5A D. 4.0A

6. It takes 4 minutes to boil a quantity of water electrically. How long will it take to boil the same quantity of water using the same heating coil but with the current doubled?

A. 32 mins B. 8 mins C. 2 mins D. 1 min

7. Determine the equivalent capacitance of the circuit shown (3µF and 1µF in parallel, in series with 2µF).

A. 1.20µF B. 6.00µF C. 0.55µF D. 1.33µF

8. Given three capacitors each of capacitance C, the resultant capacitance of 2C/3 can be obtained by

A. Combining all in parallel B. All in series C. Two of them in series and in parallel with the third D. Two in parallel and third in series with this combination

9. The inductance of a turning circuit of AM radio is 4mH. Find the capacitance of the circuit required for reception of the circuit required for reception at 1,200kHz

A. 2.l pF’ B. 4.4pF C. 21.2pF D. 27.6pF

10. Calculate the required to electorate a substance of area 300 cm2 with a layer of copper 0.6mm thick, if a steady current of 2A is maintained Assuming the density of copper is 0.0088 kg/cm3 and mass of copper liberate per coulomb is 3.3×〖10〗^(-7)kg/C.

A. 6.67hr B. 10.25hr C. 66.67hr D. 0.67hr

11. An equipment which is 1,500W and resistance 375 would draw a current of

A. 77.5A B. 4A C. 2A D. 0.2

12. A parallel arrangement of 3Ʊ and 6Ʊ resistors is placed in series with an 8Ʊ resistor. If a potential difference of 30V is connected across the whole circuit, the current in the 3Ʊ resistor is

A. 15A B. 10A C. 3A D. 2A

13. The Nickel – Iron accumulator is a secondary cell and it has

A. Very strong container B. Better acidic concentration C. Longer life span than lead-acid accumulator D. Higher relative humidity than other

14. Calculate the resistivity of a wire of length 4m and cross – sectional area 4×10^-7m² if its resistance is 3 homs

A. 16×10^-7 homs B. 3×10^-7 homs m C. 12×10^-7 homs m D. 15×10^-7 homs m

15. One of the following is a secondary cell

A. Dry cell B. Lead acid accumulator C. Daniel cell D. Leclanche cell

16. In the diagram, what is the value of X, if the effective resistance is (1)/(1.2) homs

A. 1.2 hms B. 1.4 hms C. 2.2hms D. 1.0hms

17. Birds can perch on electric cables and not be electrocuted because

A. The feet of birds are insulated B. Birds are generally immune to electricity C. Birds have less weight D. Birds have feathers

18. The electric irons use which principles?

A. Thermionic emission B. Photo electric effect C. Thermostat D. Heating effect of current

1. Two long parallel wires carry equal currents in opposite directions. The magnetic field at a point midway between the wires will:

A. Be zero B. Be directed perpendicular to the plane containing the wires C. Be equal to the sum of the fields due to each wire D. Depend on the square of the distance between the wires

2. Why is soft iron preferred as the core of an electromagnet?

A. It is a good conductor of electricity B. It retains magnetism permanently C. It is easily magnetized and demagnetized D. It has a high resistance to magnetic reversal

3. The device used to measure the angle of dip is:

A. Dip protractor B. Dip circle C. Compass needle D. Sextant

4. What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux is 1500 μWb and conducting surface area is 0.5 m²?

A. 750 μT B. 30 μT C. 300 μT D. 3000 μT

5. Which of the following statements is correct? I. A freely suspended magnet always aligns in north to south direction II. Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet cannot intersect III. In Fleming's left-hand rule, the middle finger represents the direction of magnetic field

A. I only B. 11 only C. I and II only D. 1, II and III

6. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is

A. Non-uniform B. Uniform C. Zero D. Weak

7. Which of these electrical instruments or machines does not rely on the magnetic effect of current for its working?

A. Carbon microphone B. Telephone receiver C. moving – coil galvanometer D. Dynamo

8. A current of 2.0A passes through a straight wire in a uniform magnetic of flux density 2.0×10^-3T. What force per unit length is exerted on the wire when it is inclined at 60o to the magnetic field?

A. 6.44×10^-3N/m B. 1.01×10^-5 N/m C. 3.46×10^-3N/m D. 2.22×10^-5 N/m

9. The point at which the resultant magnetic flux density is zero is the

A. Magnetic Point B. Flux point C. Neutral Point D. Zero point

10. One of these is a naturally occurring magnet

A. Lodestone B. Nickel C. Cobalt D. Soft Iron

11. The magnetic flux density of a 10m long stiff wire carrying a current of 4A is 0.8T, calculate the force if it is lying in a direction at 60o to the magnetic field

A. 48N B. 27.7N C. 32N D. 64N

12. Which of the following has no effect on the sensitivity of a galvanometer?

A. The numbers of turns in the coil B. The strength of the magnetic field C. Gaps between the coil D. The areas of the coil

13. Which of the following uses force on current carrying conductor in a magnetic field? I. electric bell II. Electric iron III. Electric motor

A. I,II and III B. I and II C. II and III D. III only

1. A coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field. Which of the following increases the maximum induced EMF in the coil?

A. Decreasing the number of turns B. Increasing the speed of rotation C. Rotating the coil slower D. Using thinner wire

2. What causes eddy currents in a conductor?

A. Rapid mechanical rotation of the conductor B. Heating of the conductor by resistance C. A changing magnetic field cutting across the conductor D. The alignment of atomic dipoles within the material

3. What is the effect of using split-ring in a simple d.c. generator?

A. The direction of rotation of the coil is reversed B. The current in the coil flows in the same direction C. The current in the coil became alternating D. The contact with the voltage source is cut off

4. The magnetic flux in a coil changes from 20 × 10⁻¹ Wb to 12 × 10⁻¹ Wb in 0.2s. Calculate the induced e.m.f. in the coil.

A. 0.4V B. 0.04V C. 4V D. 40V

5. Calculate the energy stored in an inductor of inductance 10mH when a current of 8A flows through it.

A. 6.4 × 10⁻³ J B. 6.4 × 10⁻¹ J C. 3.2 × 10⁻¹ J D. 3.2 × 10⁻² J

6. What is the force on segment of wire that is 0.5m long, and has a current of 2A, when placed in a magnetic field of 2T at an angle of 30° to the field?

A. 1.0N B. 2.0N C. 0.1N D. 0.2N

7. Which of the statements is/are true for an electric motor? I. It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. II. It generates electricity. III. It is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. IV. It follows Fleming's left hand rule.

A. I only B. I and II only C. I, II, and III only D. I and IV only

8. A transformer core is laminated to reduce

A. Hysteresis B. Copper loss C. Eddy current loss D. Stray and dielectric losses

9. The law of conservation of energy is represented by

A. Lenz’s law B. Ampere’s law C. Coulomb’s law D. faraday’s law

10. Which of these losses occur in a transformer? (i) hysteresis loss (ii) Eddy current loss (iii) stray load loss (iv) mechanical loss

A. i and ii only B. i and iii only C. i, ii and iv only D. i, ii and iii

11. Dielectric loss is due to insulating materials and the transformer insulation oils. It is minimized using high quality insulation and testing oil levels in the transformer. What is the correct formula for the efficiency of a device?

A. inputoutput B. outputlosses C. lossesoutput+losses D. 1- lossesoutput+lossses

12. An alternator can be made into dynamo by just

A. Changing the ring by commutation B. Varying the force on the coil C. Interchanging the polarity of the magnets D. Varying a magnet flux linkage

13. Which law describe the direction of induced current with motion of fields?

A. Faraday's law B. Newton's law C. Lenz's law D. Fleming's law

1. Calculate the peak voltage of a mains supply of r.m.s. value of 220V.

A. 311V B. 240V C. 222V D. 150V

2. To prevent electric appliances from damage, all but one of these is commonly used:

A. Fuse B. Surge protector C. Overload protectors and relays D. Switch

3. Which of the following circuits exhibits maximum power dissipation?

A. Pure inductive circuit B. Pure capacitive circuit C. Pure resistive circuit D. combined capacitive circuit

4. A 1.60 × 10⁻¹⁹ C ion is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 0.75kV to a speed of 8.5 × 10⁴ m/s. Calculate the mass of the ion.

A. 1.67 × 10⁻²⁷ kg B. 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ kg C. 3.32 × 10⁻²⁶ kg D. 4.84 × 10⁻²⁰ kg

5. The condition for resonance to occur in RLC series circuit is

A. When the angular frequency of the applied voltage is equal to the natural angular frequency of the circuit B. When the angular frequency of the applied voltage is greater than the natural angular frequency of the circuit C. When the angular frequency of the applied voltage is less than the natural angular frequency of the circuit D. When the angular frequency of the applied voltage is zero

6. The power factor of a series R.L.C. circuit at resonance is

A. 0 B. 1 C. π D. π/2

7. In the given circuit, what is the ammeter reading given that the voltage across the capacitor and inductor are 300V each and supply voltage is 220V across a 100Ω resistor?

A. 1.2A B. .2A C. 3.2A D. 0.2A

8. The inductance of a turning circuit of AM radio is 4mH. Find the capacitance of the circuit required for reception of the circuit required for reception at 1,200kHz

A. 2.l pF’ B. 4.4pF C. 21.2pF D. 27.6pF

9. At the resonance frequency of an L-C-R circuit the electric current value is

A. Equal to zero B. Equal to the r.m.s value C. Maximum D. Minimum

10. At resonance in an A.C circuit

A. X~L~=X~C~ B. X~C~=1/2π fC C. X~L~=0 D. X~C~=0

11. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always

A. Zero B. Less than unity C. Unity D. Greater than unity

12. The mass of an object discharge at the cathode is 15g.if the current passed through is 3A, the time is? [e.c.e=3.3×10^-7kgc-1^]

A. 996mins B. 225mins C. 253mins D. 455mins

1. Photoelectrons are emitted with a maximum kinetic energy of 2.20×10⁻¹⁹ J from a metal surface. What is the stopping potential required to prevent these electrons from reaching the anode? (1 eV = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ J)

A. 1.60V B. 1.50V C. 1.40V D. 1.55V

2. In the photoelectric effect, which of the following factors does not affect the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons?

A. Frequency of the incident light B. Work function of the material C. Intensity of the incident light D. Planck's constant

3. The energy released in a nuclear reaction is related to the mass defect by E = Δmc². What is the energy equivalent of a mass defect of 5×10⁻⁴ kg? (c = 3×10⁸ m/s).

A. 4.5×10¹⁰ J B. 4.5×10¹³ J C. 3.0×10¹³ J D. 9.0×10¹³ J

4. A sample initially contains 2.4×10²⁰ radioactive atoms with a half-life of 1 hour. How many atoms will remain undecayed after 3 hours?

A. 3.0×10¹⁰ B. 4.8×10¹⁰ C. 6.0×10¹⁰ D. 1.2×10²⁰

5. In a semiconductor, the band gap is the energy difference between:

A. Valence band and core level B. Conduction band and nucleus C. Conduction band and valence band D. Valence band and Fermi level

6. In a P-N junction diode, the depletion region widens when:

A. Forward biased B. Reverse biased C. The diode is heated D. The diode is illuminated by light

7. Which device can be used as both a switch and amplifier and consists of three layers of semiconductor material?

A. Zener diode B. Transistor C. Photodiode D. Light Emitting Diode (LED)

8. The nucleon number and the atomic number of a neutral atom of an element are 238 and 92 respectively. What is the number of neutrons in the atom?

A. 165 B. 146 C. 119 D. 73

9. Given that the speed of light is 3×10⁸ m/s, calculate the energy released in a nuclear reaction where the mass defect is 1.0×10⁻⁵kg.

A. 9×10¹¹J B. 3×10³J C. 4.5×10¹¹J D. 33J

10. The electromagnetic radiation with the shortest wavelength is:

A. Radio wave B. Gamma ray C. X-ray D. Visible light

11. Which of these materials has a very large energy gap?

A. Copper (Cu) B. Silicon (Si) C. Diamond (C) D. Graphite (C)

12. Which of the following has the largest number of free electrons?

A. Pure semiconductor B. Impure semiconductor C. Insulator D. Conductor

13. In a PN junction diode:

A. The current in forward biased condition is generally very small B. The current in reverse biased condition is generally very high C. The current in reverse biased condition is generally very small D. The forward biased current is very small in comparison to reverse biased current

14. In photoelectricity, the stopping potential of fast-moving photoelectrons is: I. Independent of frequency of incident photon II. Independent of wavelength of the incident photon III. Independent of the intensity of incident photon Which of the statements above is or are true?

A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II only

15. The function of a moderator in a nuclear reactor is to:

A. Slow down high energy neutrons B. Increase the chain reaction C. Moderate the number of nuclei available for chain reaction D. Increase the number of fissionable nuclei

16. Which of the following is the function of a p-n junction diode as a semiconductor device?

A. It can be used to convert AC to DC B. It can be used to convert DC to AC C. It can be used to amplify electric current D. It can be used to step down electric current

17. If the half-life of a particle is 4.5 days, how long will it take to decay ¾ of its original mass?

A. 9 days B. 12 days C. 15 days D. 21 days

18. Addition of a trivalent impurity to a semiconductor

A. Increases the number of holes B. Decreases the number of holes C. Increases the number of free electrons D. Decreases the number of free electrons

19. A light of 6.22eV is incident on a cadmium surface. If a stopping voltage of 2.1eV is required to reduce photocurrent to zero, calculate the work function of cadmium.

A. 4.07eV B. 2.15eV C. 6.22eV D. 8.37eV

20. Binding energy is

A. The amount of energy released when protons change energy level B. The amount of energy released when electrons change energy level C. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and neutrons D. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and electrons

21. Which of the following statements about gamma rays is/are true? I. It carries negative charge. II. It can be deflected by both magnetic and electric fields. III. It can be stopped by a sheet of paper. IV. It has zero rest mass and neutral charge.

A. I only B. I and II only C. II and IV only D. IV only

22. X — rays are very useful in all of these except

A. . in the treatment of cancer and detection of broken bones B. in the investigation of structures of crystals C. in detecting defects in metals D. in the determination of the estimate of specimen’s age

23. If cesium has a work function of 1.9ev calculate its threshold wavelength (assume lev = 1.6x10^-19J, h = 6.6x10^-34Js, 3 = 3 x108m/s).

A. 3.5x10^-11m B. 6.5x10^-7m C. 7.7x10^-7 m D. 8.6x10^-7

24. The half–life of an element is 24 hours. What fraction of the atoms has disintegrated in 72 hours?

A. 7/8 B. 3/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/4

25. The wave theory of light CANNOT be used to explain photoelectricity because

A. light waves do not carry energy B. there is a threshold wavelength for electron emission C. wavelength of light wave is too short D.

26. Neutrons are used to induce artificial radioactivity because they

A. have no charge B. have no mass C. are more energetic D. are very ionizing.

27. Insulator cannot conduct electricity because

A. The forbidden band gap is very wide B. It has no holes C. There is no valence band D. There is no conduction band

28. Calculate the energy of the third level of an atom if the ground states is -36.18eV

A. -4.02eV B. -8.20eV C. -2.75eV D. -9.20eV

29. If a donor impurity is introduced into a silicon lattice , the resulting materials is

A. P-type silicon B. Richer in hole only C. Richer in electric hole pair D. n-type silicon

30. The half-life of a substance is 2 days. What fraction will remain after 8 days?

A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/16

31. Which of the following is used in radioactive dating?

A. Car bon -- 14 B. Carbon -- 12 C. Cobalt -- 60 D. None

32. The p -- type diode has

A. More electrons than holes B. Equal number of electrons and holes C. More holes than electrons D. None

WAEC Grammar Question

1. Choose the correct option

A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

JAMB PHYSICS PAST QUESTIONS

PHYSICS JAMB QUESTIONS

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CBT Practice Questions

1. The product PV where P is pressure and V is volume has the same unit as:

2. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring the thickness of potentionmeter wire?

1. Which of the following is a fundamental (base) quantity?

2. Which of the following has the SI unit kg m s⁻²?

3. Which of the following is a derived quantity?

4. The SI unit of density is

1. What is the dimension of moment?

2. The dimensional formula of force is

1. One major limitation of experimental measurements is that they

2. A student measures the length of a metal rod several times and obtains slightly different readings. The most appropriate value to record is the

1. A man moves 6.0 m East and then 10.0 m in the direction N30°E. How far is he from his starting point?

2. The following are vector quantities EXCEPT:

3. Determine the magnitude of the acceleration of an object of mass 5kg which is being acted upon by two forces each of magnitude 50N, acting perpendicularly to each other.

4. A car travels 8 km due north then 5 km at 60° east of north. What is the displacement from the starting point?

5. A body is pulled on a smooth horizontal surface with a rope 30° to the vertical. If the effective force pulling the body along the horizontal surface is 15N, calculate the tension of the rope.

6. Which of the following pairs gives vector quantities

7. An objects is acted upon by two forces of 5N and 12N. calculate the resultants of the forces acting at an angles of 1200 to each other.

8. In the diagram above a man walks from point A to B then from B to C. what is the magnitude of his displacement? DIAGRAM IN CLASS SESSION

9. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

1. Which of these equations gives the relationship between linear speed v and angular speed w of a body moving uniformly in a circle of radius r?

2. A body moves with constant speed but has an acceleration. This is possible if it:

3. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity of 20m/s. If it reaches the ground 4 seconds later, what is the height of the hill?

4. To obtain a maximum horizontal range for a projectile, it must be launched at angle θ to the horizontal. The value of θ is:

5. . A ball of mass 0.5kg moving at 10m/s collides with another ball of equal mass at rest. If the two balls move together after the impact, calculate the velocity with which they do this.

6. A man of mass 77kg stands on a spring-weighing machine inside a lift. When the lift starts to ascend, its acceleration is 2m/s². What will be the reading on the machine?

7. A ball of mass 2kg hits a wall with a horizontal speed 10m/s and rebounds with the same speed. The impulse experienced by the ball is:

8. Which of these equations gives the relationship between linear speed v and angular speed w of a body moving uniformly in a circle of radius r?

9. The displacement of a particle is given as s = 2x³ + 5x – 4, find the equation for the velocity.

10. If the mass of an object attached to the spring of a simple harmonic oscillator is doubled, what is the ratio of the new period to the old one?

10. For two traveling waves to form a standing wave, the waves must have the same: I. Frequency II. Wavelength III. Amplitude IV. Directions

11. A cyclist of mass 30kg exerts a force of 250N to move his bicycle. The acceleration produced is 4m/s². What is the frictional force between the road and the tyres?

12. A particle in simple harmonic motion while passing through the mean position will have

13. A ball of mass 500g, released from a cliff 20m above the ground, rebounds to a height of 5m. if the ball is in contact with ground for 0.1s, calculate the force acting on the ball on impact with the ground.

14. All of these statements are example of Newton third law of motion EXCEPT

15. Which of the following is no part of the factors which determine the free fall of an object in the earth's field?

16. An objects is projected at 30^o^ to the horizontal with a velocity of 20m/s. what is the maximum height attained? [ g= 10m/s^2^].

1. Given that the radius of the earth is 6400km and the acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s², determine the escape velocity of an object on the surface of the earth.

2. The escape velocity of a body: I. Varies directly as its mass II. Varies inversely as its mass III. Varies directly as the square root of its mass IV. Does not depend on its mass. Which of these statements is true?

3. If the distance between two suspended masses of 50kg each is quadrupled, the gravitational force of attraction between them is

4. 31. Two equal masses placed 2m apart, have a gravitational attraction of 6.7×10-9N. Compute the value of the mass. [Assume, G = 6.7×10-11 Nm2/kg2].

5. If the mass of an object on the surface of the earth A, the mass of the earth is B, and the radius of the earth is R, the force of gravity on the earth is

6. The minimum velocity required for an object to just escape from the gravitational influence of the earth is

7. The escape velocity of a body on earth is 1100m/s. The body has an acceleration due to gravity of the same value on earth and in another planet. What is the velocity on the other planet if the distance on the planet is twice its distance on earth?

1. A uniform metre rule AB balanced on a knife edge 60cm from end B when a load of 22g is kept 10cm away from end A. What is the weight of the metre rule?

2. Which of the following is true of a particle in stable equilibrium?

3. Which of the following statement is true for an object in stable equilibrium?

4. A body is said to be in equilibrium when the

1. Which of the following changes would raise the centre of gravity of a vehicle the most?

1. A boy uses a single pulley system to lift a mass of 29 kg, moving at a constant velocity of 5 m/s. What is the power developed by the boy? (Take g = 10 m/s²)

2. The area under a force – distance curve is

3. The work a 300W electric grinder can do in 300s is

4. A machine does 600 J of work in 30 s. What is its power?

1. A block of mass 5 kg slides down a rough incline of 45°. If it moves with constant velocity, find the coefficient of friction between the block and the plane. (Take g = 9.8 m/s²)

2. Frictional force is an advantage in which of the following situations?

3. Tyres are threaded to

1. A plane inclined at an angle of 30° to the horizontal has an efficiency of 50%. The force parallel to the plane required to push a load of 500N up the plane is:

2. In a simple machine, the variation of efficiency with load is

3. In any machine, (i) the velocity ratio is usually greater than the mechanical advantage (ii) the efficiency equals ratio of mechanical advantage to velocity ratio (iii) the velocity ratio is independent of friction. which of the statement above is/are correct?

4. What is the velocity ratio of an incline plane which makes angle of 60o with the horizontal?

5. A machine has a velocity ratio 8 and efficiency 80%. What is its mechanical advantage?

6. The mechanical advantage of a good machine is

1. Which of the following energy conversion takes place when a catapult is used to project a stone?

2. A pieces of rubber 0.2 cm long stretches by 0.01m when a load is hung on it. Calculate the strain